2. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
3. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B? Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B?
4. Which layer of the OSI model defines logical addressing?
5. Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network?
6. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 receives packets addressed as follows:
Source IP address: 192.168.1.88
Destination IP address: 172.16.0.3
Source MAC address: 00-11-12-7a-41-10
Destination MAC address: 00-11-5c-cc-a9-c0
Source Port: 1464
Destination Port: 23
Assuming that Router1 has not been configured with NAT, what will happen to the packets?
7. Refer to the exhibit. If host 1 was to send an HTTP request to the web server that connects to Router2, what type of Layer 2 frame would be sent between Router1 and the ISP?
8. A company needs to connect an office router to a service provider to access a WAN. What device is needed to connect the router to the ISP if the service provider supplies a T1 line for the connection?
9. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to an unconfigured router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
10. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
11. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output of the ping command? (Choose two.)
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use on this device to enter privileged EXEC mode?
14. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has only the following commands added to a default Cisco 2960 configuration:
enable secret cisco
line vty 0 4
password Kn0ckkn-cK
login
interface vlan 1
ip address 10.0.1.8 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
Assume that routing between networks is functioning properly and that Switch2 has been properly configured for remote access. What would the result be if the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from Switch1 privileged mode?
15. What caused the following error message to appear?
01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
16. When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
17. Which three statements are true about full-duplex operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
18. Refer to the exhibit. If all the switches have a default configuration, how many broadcast domains are in the network?
19.
20. Refer to the exhibit. The devices have been configured with static IP addresses as shown. All hosts can communicate with each other but none of the hosts can communicate with the server. What is the cause of this problem?
21. A network host has the IP address 10.250.206.55/20. How many more network devices can be added to this same subnetwork?
22. Which type of Network Address Translation allows a host on a public network consistent access to a specified private inside host?
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses are "inside global" addresses? (Choose two.)
24. Which addresses are valid host IP addresses given the subnet mask 255.255.255.248? (Choose three.)
25. The router receives a packet with the destination address of 172.16.30.79/22. To which subnetwork does this packet belong?
26. Refer to the exhibit. What is the broadcast address for the subnetwork on which host A resides?
27.
28. What can a network administrator modify on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)
29. Which two items are required for initial configuration of Cisco routers if the IOS command-line interface is used? (Choose two.)
30. Refer to the exhibit. The router named "myhome" has received a frame from the host 192.168.254.7. The contents of this frame are being sent to host 172.16.14.243. What is the Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the myhome router?
31. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the network from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
32. Which set of commands is used to name a router and save the configuration?
33. Which command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router?
34. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator working at HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer 3 connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to check its status?
35. What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?
36. Which two statements describe the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
37. Which protocol is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol?
38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can successfully ping, using IP addresses, between router Jax and router Atlanta. However, when the command telnet Atlanta is entered from the Jax router, the Telnet connection fails. Which two reasons could be the cause of the failure? (Choose two.)
39. From what two locations can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
40. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)
41. Which two statements correctly identify the function of router memory components? (Choose two.)
42. Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file?
43. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command or sequence of commands must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
44.
45. Which security method uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?
46. What is the purpose of WEP?
47. A company has an 802.11b wireless access point installed. Which type of wireless NIC is a valid standards-based one but will not work in this environment?
48.
49. A company has a sales team that travels with laptops. On Fridays, the sales members come into assigned cubicles and connect their laptop to the wired network. The company is concerned that unauthorized users could also connect to the network. What can be done to ensure that unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network?
50. Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about the HQ R1 router model and IP address should not be accessible from the Site 2 R2 router. What security measure should be implemented?
2. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
3. Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
4. What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
5. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and all ports on switch B are in the accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains exist in the exhibited network? (Choose two.)
6. A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be connected by a link that will carry all VLAN traffic to a Catalyst 2960 LAN switch. What two commands are required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
7. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what would be the result of this command:
Sw1# telnet 192.168.1.10
8. Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which network topology is the configuration appropriate?
RtrA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
RtrA(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.18
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 18
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.18.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.44
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 44
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.44.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.22
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 22
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.22.1 255.255.255.0
9. Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.
Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?
10. A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message appears. The configuration commands and error message appear as follows:
Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Command rejected: An interface whose trunk encapsulation is "Auto" can not be configured to "trunk" mode.
What is the problem?
11. Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on a link in order for VTP to operate?
12. Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses and passwords but none of the computers can ping or telnet to RT_1. Which series of commands would correct the problem?
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are needed to complete the switch configuration so that SSH can be used to telnet from host A to SW_1? (Choose two.)
14. What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)
15. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?
16. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
18. Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which group of labels reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
19. What eliminates switching loops?
20.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
22. Consider this router output:
Router# confug
Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255)
Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255)
(255.255.255.255)% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address
What command could help with this situation?
23. Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses that are required on router B?
24. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server attached to the Memphis router. What are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
26. The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue to use only IPv4 for another year. Which IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses?
27. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
28. What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?
30. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?
31. The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
32. Which router command will verify that the router has a path to a destination network?
33. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
34. Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command telnet 192.168.1.10 is typed. The response that is given is this:
Trying 192.168.1.10….Open
Password required, but none set
What is the most likely problem?
35. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?
36. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?
37. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
38. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
39. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command is used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.)
40. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?
41. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
42.
43. Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network environment?
44.
45.
46. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
47. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)
48. Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses 209.165.201.9 through 209.165.201.10. What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet?
49. What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)
50. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list statement? (Choose three.)
51. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?
52. Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
53. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
54. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)