Chapter 1:
1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
• They are synchronous serial ports.
• They are used for initial router configuration.
• They are asynchronous serial ports.
• They are accessed using their assigned IP address.
2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
• debugging.
• password recovery.
• routing data between networks.
• troubleshooting.
• connecting one router to another.
3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
• connects peripherals in a single location.
• connects multiple networks in a single building.
• provides connectivity on a LAN.
• provides connectivity over a large geographic area.
4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
• switching.
• static addressing.
• IETF standardization.
• dynamic or static routing.
• consistent end-to-end addressing.
5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
• straight-through cable.
• terminal emulation software.
• rollover cable.
• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
• V.35 cable.
6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• bits per second.
• data bits.
• parity.
• stop bits.
• flow control.
7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
• hubs.
• routers.
• communication servers.
• transceivers.
• modems.
• multi-port repeaters.
8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
• contains startup configuration file.
• stores routing table.
• holds fast switching cache.
• retains contents when power is removed.
• stores running configuration file.
9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
• can be accessed remotely.
• does not depend on network services.
• displays startup and error messages by default.
• does not require special components.
10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
• CPU.
• hard drive.
• input/output interfaces.
• keyboard.
• monitor.
• system bus.
11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
• twisted.
• crossover.
• rollover.
• straight.
12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router’s configuration file?
• metal-oxide memory.
• read only memory.
• flash memory.
• non-volatile random access memory.
13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
• packet configuration.
• configuration files.
• flash memory.
• internal components.
14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
• a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
• a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
• a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
• a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
• volatile random access memory.
• read only memory.
• non-volatile random access memory.
• flash memory.
16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
physical layer.
• application layer.
• transport layer.
• data link layer.
• session layer.
17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
• provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
• can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
• hold the IOS image.
• connect the router to LANs and WANs.
18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
• troubleshooting problems.
• monitoring the system.
• capturing LAN data packets.
• configuring the router.
• routing data packets.
19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
• ARP tables.
• bridging tables.
• routing tables.
• switching tables.
20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table.
• retains contents when power is removed.
• stores the startup configuration file.
• contains the running configuration file.
• stores the ARP table.
21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
• holds the startup configuration by default.
• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
• stores Cisco IOS software images.
• stores routing table information by default.
• maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.
Chapter 2:
1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch
5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
• the destination device on the local media
• the path to use to reach the destination host
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Network A — WAN
• Network B — WAN
• Network C — LAN
• Network B — MAN
• Network C — WAN
• Network A — LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
• define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors
Chapter 3:
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client’s MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport
15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
Chapter 4:
1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.
2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535
3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media
8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form
9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port
11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements
12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments
13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS
14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination
15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery
16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery
18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728
19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
Chapter 5:
1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address
2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address
3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum
5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address
6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1
7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard
10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership
12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address
13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge
14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues
• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility
15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0
18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
Chapter 6:
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28
2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27
3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0
7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176
10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops
12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4
13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification
14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
• 64
• 48
• 32
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.
18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing
19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form
20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252
Chapter 7:
1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• he number of hosts to be interconnected
2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af
3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
• non-deterministic
• less overhead
• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing
4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology
8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
• source MAC - PC
• source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP - PC
• source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC
14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
15. What is a function of the data link layer?
• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media
16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated
18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame
19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• They are considered physical addresses.
• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
• They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They are used to determine the data path through the network.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
Chapter 8:
1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical
2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable
6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic
• BNC
• RJ-11
• Type F
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source
9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable
10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth
11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media
13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP
14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
• Options three is right answer (kolmas)
16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
• more host mobility
• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket
Chapter 9:
1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer
3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution
5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <—
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF
10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access
13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications
18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair
19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C
20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time
Chapter 10:
• connecting a PC to a router’s console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet spee
• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface
3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated
4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber 5. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096 7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0 8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable
10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater
11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54
12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail
• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45
14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router. 20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory
2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
• enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana
6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2 7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
AUX
Ethernet
• Console
Telnet
SSH
9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode
12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z
14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
• Console Port
16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
FINAL EXAM:
1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421
2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.
3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.
6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.
7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access 10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.
12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.
13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address. 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY
18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.
21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media. 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G
26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.
28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.
29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2 30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.
31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local
34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023
37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.
38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address
41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service
43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)# 44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers
46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0
47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27
49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254
50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.
CCNA1 Final Exam version 4.0 (100/100)
1.
Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
0040.8596.DE82
**0060.7320.B826
0060.7320.D632
0010.4F74.AC09
0040.8596.DE81
2.
Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point
3.
The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023
5.
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.
8.
nslookup command on the PC
Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?
**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100
9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128
10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1
11.
Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM
13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1
15.
A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown
Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1
16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable
17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY
18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.
22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX
23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)
172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67
25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25
26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash
27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)
Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2
28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.
29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier
30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y
31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#
32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access
34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?
3
**5
7
9
11
35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
**192.168.9.64/28
192.168.9.146/28
**192.168.9.96/28
192.168.9.129/26
192.168.9.51/26
**192.168.9.64/26
36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host
38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
**The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.
39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer
40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
**The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.
41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer
44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.
45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.
46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.
47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.
48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer
49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0
50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)
**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6
CCNA1 Final Exam version 4.0 (100/100) - (B)
1 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host�s command prompt.
X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.
2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
X A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J
3 Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
X only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers
4 Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
X enable secret
enable password
5 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
X TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
X TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
X TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
6 Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
X 100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
X 1000 Base LX
7 Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
X 192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254
8 Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
X 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
9 Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
X address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server
10 Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
X issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
11 Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
X 172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
X 172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
X 172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27
12 What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
X A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
X All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
X After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
13 In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
X NVRAM
RAM
ROM
14 A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
X router
switch
15 Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
X transport
16 Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
X The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
X Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.
17 Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
X Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#
18 Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
X 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
19 When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
X when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
20 When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
connectionless acknowledgements
X upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols
21 A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
X enable secret
VTY
22 Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a FTP client
a telnet client
X a terminal emulation program
a web browser
23 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The data is encrypted.
X The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
X The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.
24 The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
X service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier
25 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
X A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
X Five collision domains exist.
26 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
X IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
27 Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
X segment1
segment2
X segment3
X segment4
segment5
28 What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
X heirarchical
X uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
X contains a network portion
29 Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
X The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.
30 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
X The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
X The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
31 Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
X 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
32 During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
X two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame
33 Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
X The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
X The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.
34 Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
X 3
4
5
7
35 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
X The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
36 Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - rollover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - rollover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
X Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
37 Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host's default gateway.
The host's IP address.
X The host's primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host's homepage.
38 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
X The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
X The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
39 Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
X 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
X 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
X 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255
40 Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
X physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
X media access control
41 Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
X 1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535
42 As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
X 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
43 Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
X London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4
44 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
X Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94
45 Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh
X bus <--- True 46 Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem? IP address incorrectly entered network cables unplugged X subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure
47 Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
X 192.168.18.49
X 192.168.18.52
X 192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63
48 Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
X The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
X The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
X The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.
49 Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
X leaving Dallas
leaving NYC
50 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
X transport
network
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